A 50-year-old man with Lynch syndrome presents to you after a right colectomy 6 years ago for a T2N0 colon cancer with 16 negative nodes. The patient has been lost to follow-up and has had no surveillance after his resection. A colonoscopy is performed which now reveals a large pedunculated polyp in the sigmoid colon that was removed with hot snare. Pathology reveals adenocarcinoma extending to the base of the polyp. Staging computed tomography (CT) shows no evidence of distant metastasis. Which of the following options is the best recommendation for this patient?